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01 Aug 2009 00:00 by glennhambling Star rating in Norwich and San Pedr.... 23 posts Send private message

I know I need to speak to a Solicitor regarding this problem but I would appreciate any views, here is the problem.

I have owned an apartment for 4 years. A relative paid half so that we had an equal share BUT their name is NOT on the deeds, only mine. Quite simply they now want to sell I do not and we cannot agree a price for me to pay them. To be honest things have become quite bitter. They have now demanded I sell but as I said I have no intention of doing so, where do i stand legally, can I be forced to sell??





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01 Aug 2009 12:17 by mariadecastro Star rating in Algeciras (Cadiz). 8577 posts Send private message

mariadecastro´s avatar

Are you licing in the apartment? If so, you cannot be forced to sell. I f it is not your home, he can ask judicially for the house to be sold but he needs to have proof of his ownership rights.



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Maria L. de Castro, JD, MA

Lawyer

Director www.costaluzlawyers.es

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01 Aug 2009 12:46 by glennhambling Star rating in Norwich and San Pedr.... 23 posts Send private message

Maria, thanks for your swift reply.

Neither of us live in the Apartment it is just used for holidays. If they cannot force me to sell are they able to take me to court to recover the money that they paid originally?





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03 Aug 2009 19:19 by sharonw Star rating in Coin, Malaga. 281 posts Send private message

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Hi Glenn,

If your relative is not mentioned on the deeds is it in fact the case that they have no legal proof of share ownership - this would seem to be the case?

 



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Sharon

sharon@tmasspain.com

 www.themortgageservicegroup.com

 




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